Poker Forum > Strategy
Killer hand in $2.5m G'tee - Comments ...
AMRN:
--- Quote from: George2Loose on March 10, 2009, 17:38:25 PM ---
If your gonna call you shouldn"t go broke on the 832 flop- surely you"re calling cos you perhaps have him on an overpair so if you shove the flop you"ve turned the hand into a total bluff.
--- End quote ---
so by calling, you are simply set mining with the Jacks? Would you really call, planning to fold if the flop comes 832 and the villain shoves?
If you have him on an overpair, why would you call when the blinds are so large in relation to your stack?
On reflection, I"m shoving preflop in this spot.
George2Loose:
Im not saying your set mining but u do have position- When he c bets you can flat and re-evaluate.
Stack size is awkward post flop but the point Im trying to make is that nothing has changed on the flop. If you"re worried about an overpair perhaps u should fold pre but given his stack size if he has an overpair Im going broke.
Post flop- shoving is bad imo cos it only gets hands that are beating you to fold/hands that are crushing to call except perhaps tens. Unless you have a DEFINATE read that he has raised with two overs than shoving is fine co syou"re protecting your hand but you need to be fairly sure
Honeybadg:
... this is good stuff ...
I didn"t think the original raiser had an overpair but I did have three to act after me ... I think I should discount this in any case (do you agree?)
Let"s assume I raise to 7200 ... do I fold to a re-raise from
a/ Those to act after me?
b/ The original raiser?
Aside if he has an overpair ... a high flop might save me my chips.
Why did I call ... to get the cheapest flop and hope I like it ... J is great ... but "he" is going to miss most flops ... and I think when he misses he is going to bet if it is a low flop.
If he has 99 or TT I get all his chips
If he has any two none pair over cards I would likely get 1/2 pot bet
If he has 55,66 I would expect a bet to represent the over pair
As I write this I am thinking it becomes an all in or a fold ...
It comes back to this:
Let"s assume I raise to 7200 ... do I fold to a re-raise from
a/ Those to act after me?
b/ The original raiser?
Let"s start with that bit ... I-Poker $50 re-buy about to get going!
Thoughts much appreciated.
Louis
Honeybadg:
... back to this 7200 raise ... let" assume it gets to the original raiser ... what do you think he will call with? He has 32,600 left and needs to call 4,800. He has been raising lots and taking blinds.
For me - calls with:
AK
AQ
maybe AJ,AT,KQ,KJ (suited or not)???
Let"s say he might well fold the rest of the trash he might have raised with.
His 4800 would get 11,100 plus my 11,800 behind if he hits the following
55,66,77,88,99 ... so whilst he doesn"t have the right odds he might well fancy it if he thinks he can push me off other things post flop ...
Does this mean raise to say 9,500 ... though I totally committed now ... just go all in?
L
George2Loose:
His stack size does not matter. Effective stack size is YOUR stack not his. He knows how shallow you are.
If your both deeper he probs calls but he can see you"ve put almost half you stack in pre so playing post flop with 88 is not optimal.
He will either shove for a flip or fold
Navigation
[0] Message Index
[#] Next page
[*] Previous page
Go to full version