Poker Forum > Strategy
How many times does Kings run into Aces pre flop
RioRodent:
--- Quote from: noble1 on January 28, 2009, 03:12:32 AM ---
right basically P is probability , C is combination"s/combination
--- End quote ---
There we go 2 out of 4 "simply answered. :)
--- Quote from: noble1 on January 28, 2009, 03:12:32 AM ---
(50,2) is 1225 the number of possible hand combinations
--- End quote ---
My question here was what does the notation (x,y) mean, not what is the actual result of (50,2).
--- Quote from: noble1 on January 28, 2009, 03:12:32 AM ---
i hope you see that its not easy to just give a simple answer...but i hope that answers it better :)
--- End quote ---
As I hope you now realise, I wasn"t asking you to explain any advanced mathematical principles... just to clarify what the elements of the formulae are and why the structure of the 1st formula is different to the 2nd two?
kinboshi:
--- Quote from: coprey on January 28, 2009, 09:22:41 AM ---
Can"t say I find probability equations interesting. ???
However at the Virgin Festival at Dusk Till Dawn in 2008 there where 11 recorded AA v KK confrontations, in the first day. AA was winning 6 to 5, now whats the odds of that?
--- End quote ---
First bloke knocked out had AA v KK.
He then joined my cash table and told us all about it (in good humour, not angry or anything).
Then 10 minutes later we get it all-in pre with my kd kh against his ac :as:.
:3c: 9d 5d qd td
He took that quite well to be fair :D.
Swinebag:
--- Quote from: kinboshi on January 28, 2009, 10:38:27 AM ---
--- Quote from: coprey on January 28, 2009, 09:22:41 AM ---
Can"t say I find probability equations interesting. ???
However at the Virgin Festival at Dusk Till Dawn in 2008 there where 11 recorded AA v KK confrontations, in the first day. AA was winning 6 to 5, now whats the odds of that?
--- End quote ---
First bloke knocked out had AA v KK.
He then joined my cash table and told us all about it (in good humour, not angry or anything).
Then 10 minutes later we get it all-in pre with my kd kh against his ac :as:.
:3c: 9d 5d qd td
He took that quite well to be fair :D.
--- End quote ---
That still didn"t stop you whinging about Simon Trumper calling the action in the tourney!! ;D
kinboshi:
--- Quote from: Swinebag22 on January 28, 2009, 10:53:22 AM ---
--- Quote from: kinboshi on January 28, 2009, 10:38:27 AM ---
--- Quote from: coprey on January 28, 2009, 09:22:41 AM ---
Can"t say I find probability equations interesting. ???
However at the Virgin Festival at Dusk Till Dawn in 2008 there where 11 recorded AA v KK confrontations, in the first day. AA was winning 6 to 5, now whats the odds of that?
--- End quote ---
First bloke knocked out had AA v KK.
He then joined my cash table and told us all about it (in good humour, not angry or anything).
Then 10 minutes later we get it all-in pre with my kd kh against his ac :as:.
:3c: 9d 5d qd td
He took that quite well to be fair :D.
--- End quote ---
That still didn"t stop you whinging about Simon Trumper calling the action in the tourney!! ;D
--- End quote ---
He does it ALL the time. It gets soooo annoying. Too loud sir, too loud.
coprey:
--- Quote from: Swinebag22 on January 28, 2009, 09:44:07 AM ---
--- Quote from: coprey on January 28, 2009, 09:22:41 AM ---
Can"t say I find probability equations interesting. ???
However at the Virgin Festival at Dusk Till Dawn in 2008 there where 11 recorded AA v KK confrontations, in the first day. AA was winning 6 to 5, now whats the odds of that?
--- End quote ---
I think thats a routine A level stats question there col. I"ll have a go...but my expertise in teaching maths doesn"t extend to A level stats.
I got 0.039 (3 dps) this is roughly a 1 in 25 chance
I thought it would be much higher so will ask a colleague
I was correct (of course) ;D
to work it out....assuming that the probability of Aces beating Kings is 80% (0.8 ) and therefore kings beating aces is 20% (0.2)
the calculation is
(11 x 10 x 9 x 8 x 7)/(1 x 2 x 3 x 4 x 5) to work out the number of different combinations where Aces could beat kings 6 times in 11 races. This gives 462.
multiply this by the probability of 6 wins and 5 losses..so
462 x (0.8 x 0.8 x 0.8 x 0.8 x 0.8 x 0.8 ) x (0.2 x 0.2 x 0.2 x 0.2 x 0.2)
=0.03875536896
--- End quote ---
Thanks. Teachers really do have too much time on their hands. ;)
Questions:
0.03875536896 does this equate to 3.86%?
How do you arrive at the following calculation:
(11 x 10 x 9 x 8 x 7)/(1 x 2 x 3 x 4 x 5)
Thanks again. I remember maths used to be fun, but I guess ive become lazy.
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