Poker Forum > Strategy
Correct ruling?
samuel_9:
once you say call you have 2 call end of story
deanp27:
--- Quote from: samuel_9 on January 12, 2010, 19:59:31 PM ---
once you say call you have 2 call end of story
--- End quote ---
maybe but the OP doesn"t state that he says "call" only that he calls the bet (which could be tossing a 1k chip in)
so not end of story
AMRN:
--- Quote from: Swinebag22 on January 12, 2010, 19:52:15 PM ---
I think I"m getting confused here.
what about this scenario
blinds are 200/400. UTG moves all in for 5K. fold round to guy in MP who says "raise to 1000" (having not heard the allin). The dealer then informs him that it is 5K to go so MP says he doesn"t want to raise or call anymore.
Surely this is the case where he has to leave his 1K in the pot and is not obliged to match the allin?
--- End quote ---
So let"s say he knows about the 3.5k re-raise, but pretends not to. Then, when it gets to him he tosses in his 1000 chip to call and watches the 3.5k guy for a reaction..... if the guy looks confident, he can claim the mistake and save himself 2.5k... or the guy squirms, he can call the rest. This is just the same as string betting, but with a different angle.
A call is a call - and it has to be the value of the bet that is due when the action gets to him.
As for your alternative example - the raise to 1k is an impossible action, so the action cannot be completed. In the OP, a call can be completed, so should be done.
Waz1892:
--- Quote from: Swinebag22 on January 12, 2010, 19:52:15 PM ---
I think I"m getting confused here.
what about this scenario
blinds are 200/400. UTG moves all in for 5K. fold round to guy in MP who says "raise to 1000" (having not heard the allin). The dealer then informs him that it is 5K to go so MP says he doesn"t want to raise or call anymore.
Surely this is the case where he has to leave his 1K in the pot and is not obliged to match the allin?
--- End quote ---
I think would be void as it is a invalid bet, so he would have the chance to revolke the bet.?
far from a expert though
HaworthBantam:
Hmm, good one, I"ve never had this at any games I"ve run.
If the player says "call" and throws the 1k chip in, then he/she"s forced to call the whole bet, meaning the full 3.5k, no question.
I think you"ve got to ask one question - if the player throws a chip into the pot is he/she automatically assumed to be calling, regardless of any verbal announcement ? Some TDs may, whereas others may not. If the assumption is a "call" then the player is liable for the full 3.5k. If the TD thinks a genuine mistake has been made (how the TD could make that assessment, I"m not sure) then I suppose the player may be allowed to fold but leave the 1k behind.
My own view is that the player should have been forced to pay the full 3.5k - if anything, it would have made the player pay more attention in future to what"s going on around him/her. An expensive lesson maybe, but a valuable one.
Or am I just too harsh...?
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